Is "Death of a Salesman" a tragedy?

It
depends how you define .

According to Aristotle's famous definition of
tragedy, no. Miller's play does not depict the fall of a "great man" in the
traditional sense (Willy Loman is neither king nor nobleman, nor has he really achieved
anything) nor does the action take place within classical unities (that is, the action jumps
forward in time, and place). Don't be drawn into "tragic flaws" - they are a
misreading of Aristotle's text.

Miller himself, on the other hand, in his
essays on "Modern Tragedy" and "Tragedy and the Common Man" argues that
tragedy *can* and *should* deal with...